Q1. Which authentication protocol uses tickets and is resistant to replay attacks?
- A.PAP
- B.CHAP
- C.Kerberos✓ Correct
- D.RADIUS
Explanation: Kerberos uses time-stamped tickets to prevent credential reuse. Learn more.
CompTIA Security+ Practice Questions: More Practice Questions
50 free, exam-style CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) practice questions covering More Practice Questions. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.
Q2. Which concept requires users to receive only the permissions needed for their role?
- A.Least privilege✓ Correct
- B.Open authorization
- C.Implicit trust
- D.Privilege sharing
Explanation: Least privilege reduces risk by limiting access rights to what is necessary. Learn more.
Q3. Which authentication method uses a physical key that supports phishing-resistant public key cryptography?
- A.FIDO2 security key✓ Correct
- B.SMS code only
- C.Password hint
- D.Security question
Explanation: FIDO2 security keys use public key cryptography and are resistant to many phishing attacks. Learn more.
Q4. Which control provides temporary elevated access only for approved tasks?
- A.Just-in-time privilege✓ Correct
- B.Shared administrator password
- C.Permanent root access
- D.Anonymous login
Explanation: Just-in-time access reduces standing privileges by granting elevation only when needed. Learn more.
Q5. What type of attack involves inserting malicious code into a legitimate website?
- A.Phishing
- B.SQL injection
- C.Cross-site scripting (XSS)✓ Correct
- D.Man-in-the-middle
Explanation: XSS attacks inject client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Learn more.
Q6. What type of attack intercepts communication between two parties?
- A.Phishing
- B.MITM (Man-in-the-Middle)✓ Correct
- C.DoS
- D.Brute force
Explanation: MITM attacks secretly relay and potentially alter communications. Learn more.
Q7. A user approves a push notification they did not initiate. What attack might this indicate?
- A.MFA fatigue✓ Correct
- B.SQL injection
- C.RF jamming
- D.DNSSEC signing
Explanation: MFA fatigue attacks repeatedly send prompts hoping the user approves one by mistake. Learn more.
Q8. Which attack attempts to capture cookies by forcing a victim browser to send unauthorized requests?
- A.CSRF✓ Correct
- B.DDoS
- C.Smurf
- D.Bluejacking
Explanation: Cross-site request forgery tricks an authenticated browser into submitting unwanted requests. Learn more.
Q9. Which control would BEST mitigate tailgating attacks?
- A.Antivirus software
- B.Mantrap with biometrics✓ Correct
- C.Network segmentation
- D.Email filtering
Explanation: Mantraps prevent unauthorized physical entry via dual-door systems with authentication. Learn more.
Q10. Which physical security control prevents electromagnetic eavesdropping on network cabling?
- A.Faraday cage
- B.TEMPEST shielding✓ Correct
- C.Mantrap
- D.Bollards
Explanation: TEMPEST standards govern shielding against compromising emanations. Learn more.
Q11. Which physical security control prevents two people from entering a secure area on one authentication?
- A.Mantrap✓ Correct
- B.Firewall
- C.WAF
- D.Honeypot
Explanation: A mantrap uses two controlled doors or similar controls to reduce tailgating and piggybacking. Learn more.
Q12. Which type of control is a bollard outside a building entrance?
- A.Physical preventive✓ Correct
- B.Technical detective
- C.Administrative corrective
- D.Cryptographic compensating
Explanation: Bollards physically prevent vehicles from reaching protected areas. Learn more.
Q13. Which data protection method replaces sensitive values with non-sensitive substitutes stored in a mapping system?
- A.Tokenization✓ Correct
- B.Hashing only
- C.Compression
- D.Steganography
Explanation: Tokenization substitutes sensitive data with tokens while preserving a secure mapping to the original values. Learn more.
Q14. Which data state is protected by TLS during a web session?
- A.Data in transit✓ Correct
- B.Data at rest
- C.Data in archive only
- D.Data disposal
Explanation: TLS protects data as it moves across the network between client and server. Learn more.
Q15. Which data classification is usually the most restrictive?
- A.Restricted✓ Correct
- B.Public
- C.Internal
- D.Unclassified
Explanation: Restricted data generally requires the strongest handling controls because disclosure could cause significant harm. Learn more.
Q16. Which security control monitors and blocks unauthorized sensitive data transfers?
- A.DLP✓ Correct
- B.UPS
- C.NTP
- D.KVM
Explanation: Data Loss Prevention tools monitor and restrict sensitive data movement. Learn more.
Q17. Which authentication factor is 'something you are'?
- A.Password
- B.Smart card
- C.Fingerprint✓ Correct
- D.Security question
Explanation: Biometrics (e.g., fingerprints) represent inherence factors. Learn more.
Q18. Which biometric factor has the highest false acceptance rate (FAR) among common authentication methods?
- A.Iris recognition
- B.Fingerprint scanning
- C.Voice recognition
- D.Facial recognition✓ Correct
Explanation: Facial recognition systems are more susceptible to false positives compared to iris/fingerprint scans. Learn more.
Q19. Which authentication protocol uses challenge-response with non-repeating values?
- A.PAP
- B.CHAP✓ Correct
- C.EAP
- D.RADIUS
Explanation: Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) prevents replay attacks with unique challenges. Learn more.
Q20. What is the PRIMARY risk of using WEP for wireless security?
- A.Slower connection speeds
- B.Weak encryption vulnerable to cracking✓ Correct
- C.Incompatibility with modern devices
- D.Higher power consumption
Explanation: WEP's RC4 encryption can be cracked in minutes using tools like Aircrack-ng. Learn more.
Q21. Which wireless security protocol is rendered ineffective due to its vulnerability to offline dictionary attacks?
- A.WPA3
- B.WPA2-Enterprise
- C.WPS✓ Correct
- D.WEP
Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) PINs can be brute-forced in hours using tools like Reaver. Learn more.
Q22. Which type of malware replicates itself across networks?
- A.Trojan
- B.Ransomware
- C.Worm✓ Correct
- D.Spyware
Explanation: Worms self-propagate without user interaction by exploiting network vulnerabilities. Learn more.
Q23. Which type of malware remains dormant until specific conditions are met?
- A.Ransomware
- B.Logic bomb✓ Correct
- C.Spyware
- D.Adware
Explanation: Logic bombs activate upon predefined triggers like dates or system events. Learn more.
Q24. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a disaster recovery plan?
- A.Prevent all outages
- B.Restore operations after disruption✓ Correct
- C.Block cyberattacks
- D.Train employees
Explanation: DR plans outline procedures to recover IT systems post-disaster. Learn more.
Q25. Which disaster recovery site configuration has all systems pre-installed but requires data restoration?
- A.Hot site
- B.Warm site✓ Correct
- C.Cold site
- D.Mirror site
Explanation: Warm sites balance cost and recovery time with preconfigured hardware but need data sync. Learn more.
Q26. Which cloud deployment model shares infrastructure between organizations with similar compliance requirements?
- A.Public cloud
- B.Private cloud
- C.Community cloud✓ Correct
- D.Hybrid cloud
Explanation: Community clouds serve multiple entities with shared regulatory needs (e.g., healthcare organizations under HIPAA). Learn more.
Q27. Which cloud service model provides development platforms without managing underlying infrastructure?
- A.IaaS
- B.PaaS✓ Correct
- C.SaaS
- D.FaaS
Explanation: Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offers runtime environments for app development. Learn more.
Q28. Which Windows feature prevents pass-the-hash attacks by isolating credential processes?
- A.BitLocker
- B.Credential Guard✓ Correct
- C.Windows Defender
- D.AppLocker
Explanation: Credential Guard uses virtualization-based security to protect NTLM/LSA secrets. Learn more.
Q29. Which Windows log contains events related to user authentication attempts?
- A.Application log
- B.System log
- C.Security log✓ Correct
- D.Setup log
Explanation: Event ID 4624 (success) and 4625 (failure) track logon attempts in the Security log. Learn more.
Q30. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a honeypot?
- A.Store encrypted backups
- B.Detect and analyze attack methods✓ Correct
- C.Filter malicious network traffic
- D.Accelerate SSL/TLS decryption
Explanation: Honeypots lure attackers to study their techniques without risking production systems. Learn more.
Q31. Which document outlines rules for acceptable use of company resources?
- A.SLA
- B.AUP✓ Correct
- C.MOU
- D.NDA
Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines permitted and prohibited activities. Learn more.
Q32. Which principle ensures users have only the access needed for their job?
- A.Least privilege✓ Correct
- B.Defense in depth
- C.Separation of duties
- D.Non-repudiation
Explanation: Least privilege minimizes attack surfaces by restricting unnecessary permissions. Learn more.
Q33. Which control would BEST protect against ransomware?
- A.Email filtering
- B.Offline backups✓ Correct
- C.MAC filtering
- D.Screen locks
Explanation: Immutable offline backups allow recovery without paying ransom. Learn more.
Q34. What does SIEM stand for?
- A.Secure Internet Email Management
- B.Security Information and Event Management✓ Correct
- C.System Integrity Enforcement Module
- D.Standardized Incident Evaluation Metric
Explanation: SIEM systems aggregate and analyze logs for threat detection. Learn more.
Q35. Which regulation protects healthcare information in the US?
- A.GDPR
- B.HIPAA✓ Correct
- C.PCI DSS
- D.SOX
Explanation: HIPAA sets standards for protecting sensitive patient health information. Learn more.
Q36. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a digital certificate?
- A.Store encryption keys
- B.Verify identity of entities✓ Correct
- C.Compress data
- D.Filter spam
Explanation: Digital certificates bind public keys to identities via CA signatures. Learn more.
Q37. Which port is typically used for secure web browsing?
- A.80
- B.443✓ Correct
- C.22
- D.3389
Explanation: HTTPS uses TCP port 443 for encrypted web traffic. Learn more.
Q38. What is the PRIMARY risk of social engineering?
- A.Network congestion
- B.Unauthorized access via deception✓ Correct
- C.Data corruption
- D.Hardware failure
Explanation: Social engineering manipulates humans into bypassing security controls. Learn more.
Q39. Which backup type only copies changed data since the last full backup?
- A.Full
- B.Incremental✓ Correct
- C.Differential
- D.Snapshot
Explanation: Incremental backups save only new/changed files since the last backup of any type. Learn more.
Q40. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an IRP (Incident Response Plan)?
- A.Prevent all incidents
- B.Provide structured response to breaches✓ Correct
- C.Replace backups
- D.Train new employees
Explanation: IRPs define roles, procedures, and communication during security incidents. Learn more.
Q41. Which attack vector specifically targets vulnerabilities in web applications by injecting database queries?
- A.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
- B.SQL injection✓ Correct
- C.Man-in-the-middle
- D.DNS spoofing
Explanation: SQL injection manipulates database queries through unfiltered user input. Learn more.
Q42. During a penetration test, which tool would most likely be used to identify live hosts on a network?
- A.Nmap✓ Correct
- B.Wireshark
- C.Metasploit
- D.John the Ripper
Explanation: Nmap performs host discovery through ICMP, TCP, or ARP ping sweeps. Learn more.
Q43. Which cryptographic attack exploits predictable IVs in WEP encryption?
- A.Birthday attack
- B.Meet-in-the-middle
- C.FMS attack✓ Correct
- D.Rainbow table
Explanation: The Fluhrer-Mantin-Shamir (FMS) attack recovers WEP keys by analyzing weak initialization vectors. Learn more.
Q44. Which protocol should replace SNMPv2 for secure network device monitoring?
- A.SNMPv1
- B.SNMPv3✓ Correct
- C.SMTP
- D.Telnet
Explanation: SNMPv3 adds encryption and authentication missing in earlier versions. Learn more.
Q45. Which Linux command displays active network connections and listening ports?
- A.ifconfig
- B.netstat✓ Correct
- C.traceroute
- D.nslookup
Explanation: netstat -tulpn shows TCP/UDP connections and associated processes. Learn more.
Q46. Which RAID configuration provides both striping and dual parity fault tolerance?
- A.RAID 0
- B.RAID 1
- C.RAID 5
- D.RAID 6✓ Correct
Explanation: RAID 6 can withstand two simultaneous disk failures using two parity blocks. Learn more.
Q47. Which protocol secures VoIP communications through SRTP and ZRTP?
- A.SIP
- B.RTP✓ Correct
- C.H.323
- D.MGCP
Explanation: Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) encrypts voice/video streams. Learn more.
Q48. Which tool intercepts and logs network traffic for analysis?
- A.Nessus
- B.Wireshark✓ Correct
- C.Metasploit
- D.Aircrack-ng
Explanation: Wireshark captures packets in promiscuous mode for protocol analysis. Learn more.
Q49. Which control type is a security awareness training program?
- A.Administrative✓ Correct
- B.Physical
- C.Corrective hardware
- D.Cryptographic primitive
Explanation: Training is an administrative control because it uses policy and process to influence user behavior. Learn more.
Q50. Which vulnerability management action should happen after remediation?
- A.Validation✓ Correct
- B.Scope expansion without approval
- C.Deleting the asset
- D.Ignoring compensating controls
Explanation: Validation confirms that remediation was successful and did not leave the vulnerability exploitable. Learn more.