CompTIA Network+ Practice Questions: More Practice Questions

36 free, exam-style CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) practice questions covering More Practice Questions. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. Which port does SSH use by default?

Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) uses TCP port 22 to provide encrypted remote access to devices and servers. It is commonly used for administrative access to Linux systems and secure file transfers via SCP or SFTP. Learn more.

Q2. What is the well-known TCP port number for HTTP?

Explanation: HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), used for web browsing, uses TCP port 80 by default. HTTPS (secure HTTP) uses TCP port 443. Learn more.

Q3. Which port number is associated with the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol used for file sharing in Windows environments?

Explanation: SMB directly over TCP/IP uses port 445. Older versions used NetBIOS ports (137-139), but modern implementations rely on 445. Learn more.

Q4. Which port is used by NTP by default?

Explanation: Network Time Protocol commonly uses UDP port 123. Learn more.

Q5. Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv6 address?

Explanation: AAAA records map hostnames to IPv6 addresses. Learn more.

Q6. Which service automatically assigns IP configuration to clients?

Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol leases IP addresses and related settings to clients. Learn more.

Q7. Which NAT type maps many internal private addresses to one public address using ports?

Explanation: Port Address Translation allows many hosts to share one public IP address by tracking port numbers. Learn more.

Q8. Which DNS record is used to identify mail servers for a domain?

Explanation: MX records identify mail exchangers responsible for receiving mail for a domain. Learn more.

Q9. Which cable type is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

Explanation: Fiber optic cables transmit data as light through glass or plastic fibers, making them completely immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and ideal for high-speed, long-distance communication. Learn more.

Q10. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber optic cable compared to multi-mode fiber?

Explanation: Single-mode fiber has a much smaller core diameter and uses laser light sources, allowing it to transmit signals over significantly longer distances with less signal degradation (attenuation) compared to multi-mode fiber. Learn more.

Q11. Which cable type is immune to electromagnetic interference?

Explanation: Fiber optic cable uses light rather than electrical signals, making it immune to EMI. Learn more.

Q12. Which protocol uses UDP port 514 for log collection?

Explanation: Syslog collects and centralizes log messages from network devices via UDP 514. Learn more.

Q13. Which protocol uses port 161/162 for network monitoring?

Explanation: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses UDP port 161 for polling and UDP port 162 for trap messages. It enables centralized monitoring of network devices like routers, switches, and servers. Learn more.

Q14. Which protocol secures SNMP communication with authentication and encryption?

Explanation: SNMPv3 supports authentication and privacy features lacking in older SNMP versions. Learn more.

Q15. What is the main purpose of using PoE (Power over Ethernet)?

Explanation: PoE allows electrical power to be passed along with data on Ethernet cabling. This enables a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices like VoIP phones, wireless access points, and IP cameras. Learn more.

Q16. Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) provides the highest level of protection by continuously regenerating power through an inverter?

Explanation: An Online UPS (or double-conversion UPS) continuously powers the load from its inverter, meaning the battery is always engaged. This provides the cleanest power and zero transfer time during an outage, offering the highest level of protection. Learn more.

Q17. A technician needs to install network cabling in an office area with significant potential for electromagnetic interference (EMI) from fluorescent lighting and machinery. Which type of copper cabling would provide the BEST protection against EMI?

Explanation: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) Cat 6a cable includes shielding around the wire pairs (and sometimes an overall shield) to protect against EMI and crosstalk, making it suitable for noisy environments. Learn more.

Q18. Which WAN technology uses software-defined control to choose paths across multiple links?

Explanation: SD-WAN centrally manages WAN traffic policies and can select paths across broadband, LTE, MPLS, or other links. Learn more.

Q19. Which topology connects each site to a central site instead of directly to every other site?

Explanation: Hub-and-spoke designs centralize connectivity through a hub site. Learn more.

Q20. Which technology extends a Layer 2 segment over a Layer 3 network using encapsulation?

Explanation: VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames in UDP to extend network segments across Layer 3 infrastructure. Learn more.

Q21. What is the maximum speed of 1000BASE-T Ethernet?

Explanation: 1000BASE-T supports data transmission speeds up to 1 Gigabit per second over standard Cat 5e or Cat 6 twisted-pair copper cabling, making it a common choice in modern LAN environments. Learn more.

Q22. What is the primary purpose of jumbo frames?

Explanation: Jumbo frames (MTU >1500 bytes) improve throughput by reducing header overhead. Learn more.

Q23. What is the purpose of an MX record in DNS?

Explanation: MX (Mail Exchange) records direct email to the correct mail servers. Learn more.

Q24. Which DNS record type provides reverse lookups?

Explanation: PTR (Pointer) records map IP addresses to hostnames for reverse DNS queries. Learn more.

Q25. Which IPv6 address type is used for a single interface on multiple hosts?

Explanation: Anycast addresses deliver packets to the nearest of multiple identical interfaces. Learn more.

Q26. Which IPv6 feature allows a device to automatically configure its own link-local address without a DHCP server?

Explanation: While SLAAC uses NDP for address configuration, the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) itself includes the mechanisms (like Router Solicitation/Advertisement) that enable devices to discover routers and auto-configure addresses, including link-local addresses (fe80::/10 prefix + modified MAC). Learn more.

Q27. Which cloud model provides shared hardware resources between organizations?

Explanation: Community clouds serve multiple organizations with shared compliance requirements. Learn more.

Q28. Which of the following is a cloud deployment model where the infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization comprising multiple consumers (e.g., business units)?

Explanation: A private cloud is operated solely for a single organization. It can be managed by the organization or a third party and may exist on-premises or off-premises. It offers greater control and security. Learn more.

Q29. Which cabling tool is used to attach an RJ45 connector to the end of a UTP cable?

Explanation: A crimper is used to permanently attach an RJ45 (or RJ11) connector to the end of a twisted-pair cable by pressing the connector's pins into the individual wires. Learn more.

Q30. A network technician needs to terminate UTP cable onto a 110 block in a patch panel. Which tool is specifically designed for this task?

Explanation: A punch-down tool is used to insert individual wires from a UTP cable into the insulation displacement connectors (IDCs) found on 110 blocks, 66 blocks, and keystone jacks, creating a secure electrical connection. Learn more.

Q31. Which network topology provides the highest fault tolerance?

Explanation: Mesh networks offer redundant paths between nodes, ensuring continued operation if one link fails. Learn more.

Q32. What is the primary security risk of WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup)?

Explanation: WPS's 8-digit PIN can be brute-forced in hours, compromising the network. Learn more.

Q33. Which of the following WAN technologies typically provides the highest bandwidth and lowest latency over long distances?

Explanation: Metro Ethernet, utilizing fiber optic infrastructure, generally offers significantly higher bandwidth (symmetrical speeds are common) and lower latency compared to DSL, cable, or satellite, especially for business-grade WAN connections. Learn more.

Q34. What is the purpose of a load balancer in a network infrastructure?

Explanation: A load balancer distributes client requests or network traffic efficiently across multiple servers in a server farm or pool, improving application availability, scalability, and performance. Learn more.

Q35. A voice deployment has jitter during congestion. Which feature should classify and prioritize RTP traffic?

Explanation: Quality of Service can prioritize latency-sensitive voice traffic so congestion has less impact. Learn more.

Q36. Which cloud connectivity model provides private dedicated connectivity to a provider?

Explanation: Cloud providers offer dedicated private connectivity services for lower latency, predictable performance, and private routing. Learn more.

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