CompTIA CySA+ Practice Questions: Incident Response

44 free, exam-style CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) practice questions covering Incident Response. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

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Q1. What is the FIRST step in the incident response process? (Q-924430)

Explanation: Preparation ensures policies, tools, and teams are ready before an incident occurs. Learn more.

Q2. What is the purpose of a playbook in incident response? (Q-924432)

Explanation: Playbooks standardize responses to specific incidents. Learn more.

Q3. Which metric measures the time to detect a security incident? (Q-627fe9)

Explanation: MTTD = Mean Time to Detect. Learn more.

Q4. Which framework provides guidelines for incident response? (Q-924443)

Explanation: NIST SP 800-61 is the Computer Security Incident Handling Guide. Learn more.

Q5. What is the purpose of chain of custody documentation? (Q-627fee)

Explanation: Chain of custody maintains evidence integrity for legal proceedings. Learn more.

Q6. What does the 'C' in 'CSIRT' stand for? (Q-627ff7)

Explanation: CSIRT = Computer Security Incident Response Team. Learn more.

Q7. What is the MAIN purpose of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)? (Q-627ffd)

Explanation: DRPs outline procedures to recover systems after disruptions. Learn more.

Q8. What does the 'D' in 'IDEAL' incident response framework stand for? (Q-628005)

Explanation: IDEAL = Identify, Detect, Evaluate, Act, Learn (with Documentation throughout). Learn more.

Q9. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)? (Q-628013)

Explanation: DRPs outline recovery procedures for systems/data after incidents. Learn more.

Q10. When analyzing a suspected malware sample, which technique would BEST determine its capabilities without executing it?

Explanation: Static analysis examines the code without execution, reducing risk while revealing functionality. Learn more.

Q11. A security alert indicates unusual data transfers to an external cloud storage provider. What type of data analysis would BEST identify what was exfiltrated?

Explanation: Endpoint forensics can reconstruct files and data accessed around the time of exfiltration. Learn more.

Q12. During an investigation, you find a user account with administrative privileges that was last used at 3 AM. What should you do NEXT?

Explanation: Authentication logs would show if this was legitimate access or potentially compromised credentials. Learn more.

Q13. Which tool would be MOST effective for analyzing a memory dump from a compromised system?

Explanation: Volatility is specifically designed for memory forensics analysis. Learn more.

Q14. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a playbook in incident response?

Explanation: Playbooks ensure consistent, efficient response to common incident types. Learn more.

Q15. During a forensic investigation, which artifact would MOST likely reveal recently executed commands?

Explanation: Prefetch files track application execution history on Windows systems. Learn more.

Q16. What is the PRIMARY purpose of reverse engineering malware?

Explanation: Reverse engineering reveals how malware operates and how to detect it. Learn more.

Q17. When investigating a phishing incident, which artifact would MOST likely reveal the initial entry point?

Explanation: Email headers contain routing information that can trace a message's origin. Learn more.

Q18. When analyzing a memory dump, what would the presence of Mimikatz MOST likely indicate?

Explanation: Mimikatz is a credential theft tool commonly used in attacks. Learn more.

Q19. Which Windows registry key would MOST likely contain persistence mechanisms?

Explanation: The Run registry key specifies programs that start automatically at login. Learn more.

Q20. Which artifact would MOST likely reveal browser-based credential theft?

Explanation: Browser artifacts may show credential access or form submission to malicious sites. Learn more.

Q21. What is the PRIMARY purpose of maintaining a chain of custody during an investigation?

Explanation: Proper documentation of evidence handling is critical for legal proceedings. Learn more.

Q22. Which Windows artifact would MOST likely reveal recently accessed files?

Explanation: LNK (shortcut) files in Recent folders track accessed files and locations. Learn more.

Q23. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a memory dump during incident response?

Explanation: Memory captures preserve running processes, network connections, and other volatile data. Learn more.

Q24. Which artifact would MOST likely reveal USB device usage times?

Explanation: Security logs record USB device connection events with timestamps. Learn more.

Q25. Which artifact would be MOST useful for determining data exfiltration via cloud storage?

Explanation: CASB logs track user activities and data transfers to cloud services. Learn more.

Q26. What does the presence of unexpected registry Run keys indicate?

Explanation: Attackers often use registry Run keys to maintain persistence across reboots. Learn more.

Q27. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a memory dump during forensic analysis?

Explanation: Memory captures preserve volatile evidence like running processes and network connections. Learn more.

Q28. Which artifact would MOST likely reveal browser-based attacks?

Explanation: Browser artifacts may show malicious scripts, downloads, or form submissions. Learn more.

Q29. What is the PRIMARY purpose of maintaining a chain of custody document?

Explanation: Chain of custody documents proper evidence handling for legal proceedings. Learn more.

Q30. Which Windows artifact would reveal recently executed programs?

Explanation: Prefetch files track application execution history on Windows systems. Learn more.

Q31. Which artifact would reveal USB device usage times?

Explanation: Security logs record USB connection events with timestamps. Learn more.

Q32. Which tool would be MOST effective for memory analysis?

Explanation: Volatility is specifically designed for memory forensics. Learn more.

Q33. When investigating phishing, which artifact reveals entry point?

Explanation: Email headers contain routing information to trace message origin. Learn more.

Q34. What does the presence of Mimikatz in memory indicate?

Explanation: Mimikatz is a credential theft tool used in attacks. Learn more.

Q35. Which registry key contains persistence mechanisms?

Explanation: The Run registry key specifies auto-start programs. Learn more.

Q36. What is the PRIMARY purpose of reverse engineering malware?

Explanation: Reverse engineering reveals how malware operates and how to detect it. Learn more.

Q37. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a playbook?

Explanation: Playbooks ensure consistent, efficient response to incidents. Learn more.

Q38. What is the primary purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA) after a security incident?

Explanation: RCA identifies the underlying cause of an incident to implement corrective actions and prevent future occurrences. Learn more.

Q39. An endpoint is confirmed to be running ransomware. What is the best immediate containment action?

Explanation: Network isolation limits spread and command-and-control communication while preserving the system for investigation. Learn more.

Q40. Why should evidence hashes be calculated during acquisition?

Explanation: Cryptographic hashes allow investigators to verify evidence integrity after collection and transfer. Learn more.

Q41. Which incident response phase captures what worked, what failed, and what should change?

Explanation: Lessons learned identifies process, control, and communication improvements after an incident. Learn more.

Q42. Which response action removes attacker-created persistence after containment?

Explanation: Eradication removes malware, persistence mechanisms, unauthorized accounts, and exploited weaknesses. Learn more.

Q43. A phishing investigation needs to determine whether users clicked a link. Which data source helps most?

Explanation: Proxy or web gateway logs can show whether users visited malicious URLs. Learn more.

Q44. An analyst creates a timeline from endpoint, firewall, and identity logs. What is the main purpose?

Explanation: Timelines help determine scope, initial access, lateral movement, and response priorities. Learn more.

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