CompTIA A+ Core 1 Practice Questions: Networking

123 free, exam-style CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) practice questions covering Networking. Each question shows the correct answer and a clear explanation. Ready for the real thing? Take the full timed quiz below.

🚀 Take the full CompTIA A+ Core 1 quiz 📘 CompTIA A+ Core 1 study guide

Q1. Which port number is used by HTTPS by default?

Explanation: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) uses port 443 by default to establish secure, encrypted communication between a client and a server. This ensures data integrity and confidentiality, making it essential for secure web browsing. Learn more.

Q2. What type of cable would you use to connect two computers directly without a switch?

Explanation: A crossover Ethernet cable is specifically designed to connect two computers directly without the need for a switch or hub. It reverses the transmit and receive signals, allowing the devices to communicate with each other. Learn more.

Q3. What does the 'ping' command primarily test?

Explanation: Ping tests network connectivity by sending ICMP echo requests. Learn more.

Q4. Which protocol is used for automatically assigning IP addresses?

Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses. Learn more.

Q5. Which command would you use to display TCP/IP configuration in Windows?

Explanation: ipconfig displays the current TCP/IP network configuration. Learn more.

Q6. What is the function of a DNS server?

Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) servers resolve human-readable domain names to machine-readable IP addresses. Learn more.

Q7. Which wireless standard operates at 5 GHz only?

Explanation: 802.11a operates exclusively at 5 GHz, while b/g operate at 2.4 GHz and n/ac/ax can use both. Learn more.

Q8. What does the 'tracert' command display?

Explanation: tracert (traceroute) shows the path packets take to reach a destination and measures transit delays. Learn more.

Q9. Which port is used by RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)?

Explanation: RDP uses TCP port 3389 by default for remote connections. Learn more.

Q10. Which command would you use to test network connectivity to a specific port?

Explanation: telnet can be used to test connectivity to specific ports (e.g., 'telnet example.com 80'). Learn more.

Q11. What is the purpose of the netstat command?

Explanation: netstat displays active network connections and listening ports. Learn more.

Q12. Which protocol is used for secure file transfer?

Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) provides secure file transfer over encrypted connections. Learn more.

Q13. What is the purpose of a VLAN?

Explanation: VLANs (Virtual LANs) logically segment networks for improved security and traffic management. Learn more.

Q14. Which protocol is used for email retrieval?

Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used to retrieve email from a server. Learn more.

Q15. Which command would you use to display the routing table?

Explanation: 'route print' displays the local IP routing table in Windows. Learn more.

Q16. Which protocol is used for dynamic IP address assignment in IPv6?

Explanation: DHCPv6 provides stateful address configuration for IPv6 networks. Learn more.

Q17. Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?

Explanation: HTTPS provides encrypted communication over HTTP using SSL/TLS. Learn more.

Q18. Which protocol is used for time synchronization?

Explanation: NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes clocks across computer networks. Learn more.

Q19. Which type of network has the smallest geographic coverage?

Explanation: PAN (Personal Area Network) covers the smallest area, typically a single person's workspace. Learn more.

Q20. Which protocol is used for remote command-line access?

Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted remote command-line access. Learn more.

Q21. Which protocol is used for name resolution?

Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) translates domain names to IP addresses. Learn more.

Q22. Which protocol is used for sending email?

Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email messages. Learn more.

Q23. Which protocol is used for retrieving email while leaving it on the server?

Explanation: IMAP allows email access while keeping messages on the server. Learn more.

Q24. Which protocol is used for file sharing in Windows networks?

Explanation: SMB (Server Message Block) is the native file sharing protocol in Windows. Learn more.

Q25. Which component is responsible for wireless network connectivity?

Explanation: Wi-Fi cards provide wireless network connectivity in devices. Learn more.

Q26. Which protocol is used for network discovery in Windows?

Explanation: LLMNR (Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution) helps with local network name resolution. Learn more.

Q27. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?

Explanation: Class C IP addresses use a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Learn more.

Q28. What is the primary function of a DNS server?

Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. Learn more.

Q29. What is the purpose of the 'ping' command?

Explanation: Ping sends ICMP echo requests to test if a host is reachable. Learn more.

Q30. What is the purpose of the 'ipconfig /release' command?

Explanation: 'ipconfig /release' drops the current DHCP-assigned IP address. Learn more.

Q31. Which wireless standard operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?

Explanation: 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. Learn more.

Q32. Which protocol is used for secure remote desktop connections?

Explanation: RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) allows secure remote access to Windows machines. Learn more.

Q33. What is the purpose of the 'netstat' command?

Explanation: netstat shows active network connections and listening ports. Learn more.

Q34. What is the purpose of the 'tracert' command?

Explanation: tracert shows the path packets take to reach a destination. Learn more.

Q35. What is the purpose of the 'route print' command?

Explanation: 'route print' displays the local IP routing table. Learn more.

Q36. What is the purpose of the 'nslookup' command?

Explanation: nslookup queries DNS servers for domain name resolution. Learn more.

Q37. Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over a network?

Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) encrypts file transfers. Learn more.

Q38. What is the purpose of a VLAN (Virtual LAN)?

Explanation: VLANs divide a physical network into isolated virtual networks. Learn more.

Q39. What is the purpose of the 'netstat -tuln' command?

Explanation: 'netstat -tuln' lists listening TCP/UDP ports and services. Learn more.

Q40. Which protocol is used for remote Linux administration?

Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts remote command-line access. Learn more.

Q41. What is the purpose of the 'ifconfig' command?

Explanation: 'ifconfig' displays network interface configurations (Linux/macOS). Learn more.

Q42. What is the purpose of the 'ping6' command?

Explanation: 'ping6' tests connectivity to IPv6 addresses (vs. 'ping' for IPv4). Learn more.

Q43. Which protocol is used for network time synchronization?

Explanation: NTP (Network Time Protocol) syncs system clocks over a network. Learn more.

Q44. What is the purpose of the 'scp' command in Linux?

Explanation: The `scp` (secure copy) command allows you to transfer files securely between remote systems over SSH. For example, `scp file.txt user@host:/path` sends the file with encryption, making it safer than unencrypted protocols like FTP. Learn more.

Q45. Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?

Explanation: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) encrypts communication between a user's browser and the web server using SSL/TLS. It protects against eavesdropping, tampering, and man-in-the-middle attacks, making it essential for secure transactions and privacy. Learn more.

Q46. Which protocol is used for transferring files over the internet?

Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) enables users to upload and download files to and from a remote server. Although still used, FTP lacks encryption, so SFTP or FTPS is preferred for secure transfers. It operates over TCP ports 20 and 21. Learn more.

Q47. Which protocol is used for secure file transfers over SSH?

Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) runs over a secure SSH connection and encrypts both authentication credentials and data transfers. Unlike FTP, which is unencrypted, SFTP ensures data integrity and confidentiality during file transfers. Learn more.

Q48. Which protocol is used for retrieving email from a server?

Explanation: IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) allows email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server while leaving the original emails on the server. It enables synchronization across multiple devices and folders. Unlike POP3, IMAP is ideal for modern, connected users. Learn more.

Q49. What is the maximum length of a Cat 5e Ethernet cable for reliable data transmission?

Explanation: Cat 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1 Gbps at distances up to 100 meters (328 feet). Beyond this, signal degradation can occur without the use of switches or repeaters. It’s widely used in home and office networks due to its balance of cost and performance. Learn more.

Q50. What is the default port number for FTP (File Transfer Protocol)?

Explanation: FTP uses port 21 to establish control commands and port 20 for actual file data transfer. It is a standard protocol used for transferring files between a client and server over a network. Unlike SFTP or FTPS, FTP transmits data in plaintext. Learn more.

Q51. What is the purpose of the 'ipconfig /flushdns' command in Windows?

Explanation: The 'ipconfig /flushdns' command clears the DNS resolver cache on a Windows system. This can help resolve issues where DNS entries have become outdated or corrupted, ensuring the system retrieves fresh DNS data from the server. Learn more.

Q52. Which port number is used by HTTPS by default?

Explanation: HTTPS uses TCP port 443 for encrypted web traffic. Learn more.

Q53. What type of cable would you use to connect two computers directly without a switch?

Explanation: A crossover Ethernet cable is used to connect two similar devices directly, such as two computers, by reversing the transmit and receive signal wires. This allows for direct communication without the need for a hub or switch, although most modern devices support Auto-MDI/X, which can auto-detect connections. Learn more.

Q54. What does the 'ping' command primarily test?

Explanation: The 'ping' command sends ICMP echo requests to a host and measures the time it takes to receive a response. It's used to test whether a host is reachable and how long packets take to travel, which helps diagnose basic network connectivity or latency issues. Learn more.

Q55. Which protocol is used for automatically assigning IP addresses?

Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) assigns IP addresses dynamically. Learn more.

Q56. Which command would you use to display TCP/IP configuration in Windows?

Explanation: ipconfig displays IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS. Learn more.

Q57. What IP address range is typically assigned by APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) when a DHCP server is unreachable?

Explanation: APIPA automatically assigns an IP address from the 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 range (with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0) if a DHCP client cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. This allows for local network communication but not internet access. Learn more.

Q58. Which of the following network cable types is MOST susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

Explanation: UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable lacks the shielding found in STP or coaxial cables, making it more vulnerable to EMI from sources like fluorescent lights, motors, or other electrical equipment. Fiber optic is immune to EMI. Learn more.

Q59. What is the primary function of a DNS server in a TCP/IP network?

Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) servers translate human-readable domain names (like www.comptia.org) into machine-readable IP addresses (like 104.20.6.172) that computers use to connect to each other. Learn more.

Q60. Which of the following TCP ports is primarily used by SMTP for sending email?

Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) traditionally uses TCP port 25 for sending email between mail servers. Port 587 (with STARTTLS) and 465 (SMTPS) are also used for secure submission from email clients. Learn more.

Q61. A SOHO router feature allows specific internal IP addresses and ports to be accessible from the internet for services like a home web server. What is this feature called?

Explanation: Port Forwarding (or port mapping) allows remote computers (e.g., on the internet) to connect to a specific computer or service within a private local-area network (LAN) by mapping an external port to an internal IP address and port. Learn more.

Q62. A Windows computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. Which IP address is it MOST likely to assign to itself via APIPA?

Explanation: When a DHCP client cannot reach a DHCP server, Windows will use Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) to assign an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. Learn more.

Q63. When selecting network cabling for installation in air handling spaces (e.g., above ceiling tiles), which type of cable jacket rating is required for fire safety?

Explanation: Plenum-rated cable has a special fire-retardant jacket (e.g., FEP) that produces less smoke and toxic fumes when burned compared to PVC. It is required by fire codes in many areas for installation in plenum spaces (air handling spaces). Learn more.

Q64. Which protocol is used to synchronize time on networked devices?

Explanation: NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes clocks on network devices to a reference time source.

Q65. Which cable category supports Gigabit Ethernet over 100 meters?

Explanation: Cat 5e is rated for 1 Gb/s Ethernet up to 100 meters; Cat 6 can also but only with better crosstalk handling.

Q66. What is the default port for SMTP mail submission (with STARTTLS)?

Explanation: Port 587 is the standard for SMTP submission with STARTTLS encryption.

Q67. Which tool provides a graphical view of network packet flows to help diagnose latency issues?

Explanation: Wireshark captures and displays packet flows with timestamps for latency and protocol analysis.

Q68. Which wireless standard introduced OFDMA for improved multi-user performance?

Explanation: 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) uses OFDMA to allow multiple users to share channels more efficiently.

Q69. Which protocol is commonly used for querying and modifying directory services, such as Active Directory, for user authentication and resource access?

Explanation: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is an application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services. It's widely used in IT for authentication against directory servers like Microsoft Active Directory. Learn more.

Q70. Which protocol is used by network management systems to collect information from network devices and modify their configuration?

Explanation: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and managing network devices. It allows network administrators to collect information about device performance, network traffic, and potential issues. Learn more.

Q71. Which basic networking device operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) and simply retransmits signals to all connected devices, creating a single collision domain?

Explanation: A hub is a basic networking device that operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model. It functions by simply repeating any incoming signal to all other connected ports, creating a single large collision domain and shared bandwidth. Learn more.

Q72. What is the primary difference between a cable modem and a DSL modem?

Explanation: Cable modems connect to the internet via coaxial cables (like those used for cable TV), while DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) modems use existing copper telephone lines. Learn more.

Q73. What is a key trade-off when choosing between 2.4GHz and 5GHz Wi-Fi frequencies?

Explanation: 2.4GHz Wi-Fi offers a longer range and better penetration through walls due to its lower frequency, but it's more prone to interference from other devices. 5GHz provides faster speeds and less interference, but its signals have a shorter range and are more easily obstructed. Learn more.

Q74. Which wireless technology uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects, often used in inventory management?

Explanation: RFID (Radio-Frequency Identification) technology uses radio waves to read information from RFID tags without direct line of sight or contact. It's widely used in tracking inventory, access control, and supply chain management. Learn more.

Q75. Which server role is primarily responsible for hosting and delivering web pages to clients over HTTP or HTTPS?

Explanation: A web server stores website content and delivers it to users' web browsers upon request, typically using HTTP or HTTPS protocols. Learn more.

Q76. In a corporate network, which specialized device or service is designed to identify and block unwanted or malicious email messages before they reach users' inboxes?

Explanation: A spam gateway (or anti-spam appliance) is a security solution that filters incoming email traffic to detect and block spam, phishing attempts, and other malicious content before it can compromise the internal network or users. Learn more.

Q77. A network administrator wants to ensure a specific server always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server. What DHCP configuration should be used?

Explanation: A DHCP reservation binds a specific IP address to a device's MAC address, ensuring that the device always receives that particular IP address from the DHCP server when it requests one. Learn more.

Q78. Which type of DNS record is commonly used to help prevent email spoofing by specifying which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain?

Explanation: TXT records are versatile DNS records that can store text information. SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) records are implemented as TXT records and are crucial for email authentication and combating spoofing and phishing. Learn more.

Q79. What is the smallest type of computer network, typically covering a range of a few meters and connecting personal devices like smartphones and wireless headsets?

Explanation: A PAN (Personal Area Network) is the smallest network, typically used for personal communication devices within a very short range, often using technologies like Bluetooth. Learn more.

Q80. What is the key difference between a Local Area Network (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)?

Explanation: A LAN connects devices within a limited area (e.g., a home, office building), while a WAN connects devices over a broad geographical area, often spanning cities, regions, or even continents. Learn more.

Q81. A technician needs to locate a break in an unexposed Ethernet cable run inside a wall. Which networking tool would be most effective for this task?

Explanation: A toner probe (or tone generator and probe kit) is used to trace cables and identify breaks or terminations by sending an audible signal down the wire. Learn more.

Q82. When troubleshooting slow Wi-Fi speeds or intermittent connections, which networking tool can help identify crowded channels or sources of interference?

Explanation: A Wi-Fi analyzer tool (either software or hardware) can scan wireless networks to identify signal strength, channel usage, and potential sources of interference, helping optimize Wi-Fi performance and troubleshoot issues. Learn more.

Q83. Which protocol is commonly used for querying and modifying directory services, such as Active Directory, for user authentication and resource access?

Explanation: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is an application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services. It's widely used in IT for authentication against directory servers like Microsoft Active Directory. Learn more.

Q84. Which protocol is used by network management systems to collect information from network devices and modify their configuration?

Explanation: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and managing network devices. It allows network administrators to collect information about device performance, network traffic, and potential issues. Learn more.

Q85. Which basic networking device operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) and simply retransmits signals to all connected devices, creating a single collision domain?

Explanation: A hub is a basic networking device that operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model. It functions by simply repeating any incoming signal to all other connected ports, creating a single large collision domain and shared bandwidth. Learn more.

Q86. What is the primary difference between a cable modem and a DSL modem?

Explanation: Cable modems connect to the internet via coaxial cables (like those used for cable TV), while DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) modems use existing copper telephone lines. Learn more.

Q87. What is a key trade-off when choosing between 2.4GHz and 5GHz Wi-Fi frequencies?

Explanation: 2.4GHz Wi-Fi offers a longer range and better penetration through walls due to its lower frequency, but it's more prone to interference from other devices. 5GHz provides faster speeds and less interference, but its signals have a shorter range and are more easily obstructed. Learn more.

Q88. Which wireless technology uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects, often used in inventory management?

Explanation: RFID (Radio-Frequency Identification) technology uses radio waves to read information from RFID tags without direct line of sight or contact. It's widely used in tracking inventory, access control, and supply chain management. Learn more.

Q89. Which server role is primarily responsible for hosting and delivering web pages to clients over HTTP or HTTPS?

Explanation: A web server stores website content and delivers it to users' web browsers upon request, typically using HTTP or HTTPS protocols. Learn more.

Q90. In a corporate network, which specialized device or service is designed to identify and block unwanted or malicious email messages before they reach users' inboxes?

Explanation: A spam gateway (or anti-spam appliance) is a security solution that filters incoming email traffic to detect and block spam, phishing attempts, and other malicious content before it can compromise the internal network or users. Learn more.

Q91. A network administrator wants to ensure a specific server always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server. What DHCP configuration should be used?

Explanation: A DHCP reservation binds a specific IP address to a device's MAC address, ensuring that the device always receives that particular IP address from the DHCP server when it requests one. Learn more.

Q92. Which type of DNS record is commonly used to help prevent email spoofing by specifying which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of a domain?

Explanation: TXT records are versatile DNS records that can store text information. SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) records are implemented as TXT records and are crucial for email authentication and combating spoofing and phishing. Learn more.

Q93. What is the smallest type of computer network, typically covering a range of a few meters and connecting personal devices like smartphones and wireless headsets?

Explanation: A PAN (Personal Area Network) is the smallest network, typically used for personal communication devices within a very short range, often using technologies like Bluetooth. Learn more.

Q94. What is the key difference between a Local Area Network (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)?

Explanation: A LAN connects devices within a limited area (e.g., a home, office building), while a WAN connects devices over a broad geographical area, often spanning cities, regions, or even continents. Learn more.

Q95. A technician needs to locate a break in an unexposed Ethernet cable run inside a wall. Which networking tool would be most effective for this task?

Explanation: A toner probe (or tone generator and probe kit) is used to trace cables and identify breaks or terminations by sending an audible signal down the wire. Learn more.

Q96. When troubleshooting slow Wi-Fi speeds or intermittent connections, which networking tool can help identify crowded channels or sources of interference?

Explanation: A Wi-Fi analyzer tool (either software or hardware) can scan wireless networks to identify signal strength, channel usage, and potential sources of interference, helping optimize Wi-Fi performance and troubleshoot issues. Learn more.

Q97. Which of the following common networking protocols primarily uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) for its communication due to its connectionless nature and emphasis on speed over reliability?

Explanation: TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) uses UDP because it's designed for simple, fast file transfers where error checking and retransmission (provided by TCP) are handled at a higher layer or are not critical. DNS queries and DHCP also commonly use UDP. Learn more.

Q98. What is the main characteristic that distinguishes a 'managed' network switch from an 'unmanaged' switch?

Explanation: Managed switches allow network administrators to configure various network settings (e.g., VLANs, QoS, port security) and monitor network traffic, offering greater control and flexibility. Unmanaged switches are plug-and-play with no configuration options. Learn more.

Q99. Which 802.11 wireless standard, widely adopted for early Wi-Fi, operates only in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and offers a maximum theoretical throughput of 54 Mbps?

Explanation: 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band and provides theoretical speeds up to 54 Mbps. It was a popular upgrade from 802.11b, offering faster speeds while maintaining backward compatibility. Learn more.

Q100. Which server role is responsible for collecting and centralizing log messages from various network devices, servers, and applications for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes?

Explanation: A Syslog server is a centralized log management system that collects log messages (events) from network devices, operating systems, and applications. This centralization aids in monitoring, security analysis, and troubleshooting by providing a single point of access for all logs. Learn more.

Q101. In IPv6 networking, what is the process called when a device automatically configures its own IP address based on its MAC address and the network prefix advertised by a router, without requiring a DHCPv6 server?

Explanation: SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration) is an IPv6 feature that allows devices to automatically generate their own unique IPv6 addresses by combining a network prefix (received from a router advertisement) with their own MAC address. Learn more.

Q102. Which type of DNS record maps an IPv6 hostname (e.g., 'server.example.com') to its corresponding IPv6 address?

Explanation: An AAAA record (quad-A record) in DNS is used to store the IPv6 address for a hostname. An A record stores the IPv4 address. Learn more.

Q103. Which protocol uses TCP port 23 and is known for transmitting data in plaintext, making it insecure for remote administration over untrusted networks?

Explanation: Telnet operates on TCP port 23 and provides a command-line interface for remote access. However, it transmits all data, including usernames and passwords, in plaintext, making it highly vulnerable to eavesdropping. SSH (port 22) is the secure alternative. Objective 2.1 covers 'Ports and protocols' including '23 – Telnet'. Learn more.

Q104. What is the primary function of a network firewall in a typical network setup?

Explanation: A firewall acts as a security barrier, controlling network traffic by analyzing data packets and allowing or blocking them based on a set of security rules. Objective 2.2 lists 'Firewall' as common networking hardware. Learn more.

Q105. Which 802.11 wireless standard introduced MIMO (Multiple-Input, Multiple-Output) technology to significantly improve throughput and range, operating on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands?

Explanation: 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) was a major advancement, introducing MIMO technology that uses multiple antennas to send and receive data simultaneously, boosting speeds and extending range in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. Objective 2.3 covers '802.11' standards including '-n'. Learn more.

Q106. In a large enterprise network, which type of server is used to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple identical servers to ensure high availability and prevent any single server from becoming overloaded?

Explanation: A load balancer distributes network traffic efficiently across a group of backend servers. This ensures no single server is overwhelmed, improving application performance, reliability, and availability. Objective 2.4 lists 'Load balancers' as a service provided by networked hosts. Learn more.

Q107. Which of the following IPv4 address ranges is reserved for private networks and is typically used within SOHO or corporate LANs, not routable on the public internet?

Explanation: The 192.168.0.0/16 range (along with 10.0.0.0/8 and 172.16.0.0/12) is designated as private IP address space by RFC 1918. These addresses are used for internal networks and are not routed on the public internet. Objective 2.5 covers 'IPv4' and 'Private addresses'. Learn more.

Q108. Which network configuration concept allows a single physical network switch to be logically segmented into multiple isolated broadcast domains, improving security and traffic management?

Explanation: A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) allows network administrators to logically segment a network into separate broadcast domains, even if devices are connected to the same physical switch. This enhances security and network performance. Objective 2.6 lists 'Virtual LAN (VLAN)' as a common network configuration concept. Learn more.

Q109. Which type of internet connection typically offers the highest download and upload speeds over long distances by transmitting data as light signals through glass or plastic strands?

Explanation: Fiber optic internet uses strands of glass or plastic to transmit data as light pulses, providing significantly higher speeds and lower latency compared to traditional copper-based connections like cable or DSL. Objective 2.7 covers 'Internet connection types' including 'Fiber'. Learn more.

Q110. A technician needs to test the functionality of a network port on a switch without connecting a live device, ensuring it can send and receive signals. Which networking tool would be used to perform this test?

Explanation: A loopback plug (or loopback adapter) is used to test the functionality of a network port by sending signals out of the port and looping them back into the same port, verifying that the port can transmit and receive data. Objective 2.8 lists 'Loopback plug' as a networking tool. Learn more.

Q111. Which wireless standard is also known as Wi-Fi 6?

Explanation: 802.11ax is officially marketed as Wi-Fi 6. It offers improved efficiency, throughput, and performance in congested environments compared to previous standards. Learn more.

Q112. When terminating a twisted-pair Ethernet cable, which wiring standard places the orange pair at pins 1 and 2?

Explanation: The T568B standard places the Orange/White wire at pin 1 and the Orange wire at pin 2. T568A starts with Green/White. Learn more.

Q113. Which tool would you use to attach an RJ-45 connector to the end of a UTP cable?

Explanation: A Crimper is used to compress the plastic connector (RJ-45) onto the wires of the cable, making a permanent connection. Learn more.

Q114. Which port number is used by SSH (Secure Shell)?

Explanation: SSH uses port 22. It is a cryptographic network protocol for operating network services securely over an unsecured network. Learn more.

Q115. Which network device forwards Ethernet frames based on MAC addresses?

Explanation: A switch learns MAC addresses and forwards frames only toward the appropriate port when possible. Learn more.

Q116. Which broadband technology uses the cable television infrastructure for Internet access?

Explanation: DOCSIS defines data services over cable TV networks and is used by cable modems. Learn more.

Q117. Which cable jacket rating is appropriate for air-handling spaces above drop ceilings?

Explanation: Plenum-rated cable is designed for spaces used for air circulation and has stricter fire and smoke characteristics. Learn more.

Q118. Which connector is used for most twisted-pair Ethernet connections?

Explanation: RJ45-style 8P8C connectors are used on common copper Ethernet patch cables. Learn more.

Q119. Which port is commonly used by SMTP for mail submission with STARTTLS?

Explanation: TCP port 587 is commonly used for authenticated email submission, often with STARTTLS. Learn more.

Q120. Which antenna placement generally improves Wi-Fi coverage in a small office?

Explanation: Central elevated placement reduces obstructions and interference, improving wireless coverage. Learn more.

Q121. Which connector is commonly used for fiber optic patch cables in enterprise networks?

Explanation: LC connectors are small form-factor fiber connectors common in data centers and enterprise networks. Learn more.

Q122. Which tool is used to attach an RJ45 connector to twisted-pair cable?

Explanation: A crimper attaches modular connectors such as RJ45-style plugs to twisted-pair cable. Learn more.

Q123. Which network type covers a small personal area around a user, such as Bluetooth peripherals?

Explanation: A personal area network connects devices near an individual, such as Bluetooth headphones or keyboards. Learn more.

More CompTIA A+ Core 1 practice topics